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Zeros inside an annulus
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julien_santini
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#1
Zeros inside an annulus
Berkeley Prelim

Let f be analytic in the annulus A= \{z;\ 1 \leq |z| \leq 2 \} such that |f|=5 on the frontier of A. Show that f has at least 2 zeroes in A.

PostPosted: Tue Jan 03, 2006 8:34 pm  Back to top 
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jmerry
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#2
It's boundary, not frontier.

A silly counterexample: f(x)=5.
I suppose the problem really says "nonconstant". I've got it up to details, but the topology is really annoying.

It's not trivial to show such functions exist.

PostPosted: Tue Jan 03, 2006 10:39 pm  Back to top 
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julien_santini
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#3
Yeah nonconstant. Well I found that such a function has at least one zero (this is rather trivial via the maximum modulus principle), but I still cannot see (even intuitively) where the second zero comes from.

PostPosted: Wed Jan 04, 2006 9:35 am  Back to top 
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jmerry
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#4
Also, that should be "counting multiplicity"- I can construct an example that has one zero of multiplicity two.

Here's the nice argument:
Let C_1 be the inner circle and C_2 be the outer circle. By the argument principle, the number of zeros of f (counting multiplicity) is \int_{C_2}\frac{f'(z)}{2\pi i f(z)}\,dz-\int_{C_1}\frac{f'(z)}{2\pi i f(z)}\,dz. Each of those integrals must be an integer. Since f is not constant, \frac{f'}{f} is not uniformly zero on either curve.

Now, by geometric considerations, z\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)} is pure real on both circles. In addition, since |f(z)|<5 inside the annulus by the maximum modulus principle, z\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)} has positive (nonnegative, really) real part on C_2 and negative real part on C_1 (look at what happens to f along the curve tz). This makes \int_{C_2}\frac{f'(z)}{2\pi i f(z)}\,dz a positive integer and \int_{C_1}\frac{f'(z)}{2\pi i f(z)}\,dz a negative integer, so the difference is at least 2.

PostPosted: Wed Jan 04, 2006 11:49 am  Back to top 
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kyryk
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#5
I stumbled upon this problem recently and couldn't figure it out. I am happy to see someone solved it Smile
Could you elaborate on it. Why is zf'/f real? Why is it important that the f'/f is not uniformly zero; even if it is not zero, then still the integrals could be. Any help would be appreciated!

PostPosted: Sat Apr 01, 2006 9:55 pm  Back to top 
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jmerry
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#6
The argument isn't just that z\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)} is real- it's that z\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)}\ge 0 on the outer circle and z\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)}\le0 on the inner circle. With that, the only way either integral can be zero is if z\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)} is identically zero on the circle.

Why is z\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)} purely real? Differentiate \ln(f(re^{i\theta})), where r is the radius of one of the circles. The derivative is ire^{i\theta}\frac{f'(re^{i\theta})}{f(re^{i\theta})}; this is purely imaginary since the real part of \ln(f(e^{i\theta})) is identically \ln 5. Divide by i and set z=re^{i\theta}: z\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)} is real when z is on one of the circles.

There are other, more geometric ways of seeing this- look at the definition of the derivative along certain curves. To get the sign result, we use a radial line instead of the circle.

PostPosted: Sat Apr 01, 2006 10:31 pm  Back to top 
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kyryk
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#7
Hi,
Thank you for your reply! I have a few more questions. How do you change your argument if f(z) is a negative number? Do you change the branch cut for the log function? Also, how do you know exactly that zf'/f is positive/negative? I am not able to see this. Also, how do you go from zf'/f to dz f'/f? Do you just use the fact that z~i dz?
Thank you very much, and sorry to bother you with all the details!

PostPosted: Sat Apr 01, 2006 10:47 pm  Back to top 
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kyryk
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#8
Actually, I think I got it! Thank you for your help!

In one of your previous posts you mention that "the topology is really annoying" Is there a general approach to this kind of questions? Could you recommend a book?

Also, can you give a function with a double root? How do you construct one?

Once again, thank you for your help. THis question really intrigued me and that's why I have so many questions.

PostPosted: Sat Apr 01, 2006 11:04 pm  Back to top 
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