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perfect_radio
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#1
an utterly inappropriate question
sick mind

Let (x_n)_{n \geq 1} be a sequence of real numbers s.t. x_i > 1, \forall i \in \mathbb{N}. Also consider P_n=x_1 x_2 \ldots x_n.

Is it true that \lim_{n \to \infty} P_n = \infty?

If it turns out not to be true, then a counter-example would be appreciated Rolling Eyes Or some sufficient conditions...



Again, sorry if this question is the dumbest ever posted here Blush
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PostPosted: Thu Sep 15, 2005 2:40 pm  Back to top 
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Arne
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#2
We have \lim_{n \rightarrow + \infty}\left(\prod_{i = 0}^n\left(1 + \frac{1}{2^{2^i}}\right)\right) = 2. So that's a nice counterexample.

Obviously we can also use the following example:

\lim_{n \rightarrow + \infty}\left(\prod_{i = 0}^n\ \sqrt[2^i]{2}\right) = 4 but that one is less spectacular, in my opinion Wink

Intuitively it should be obvious that the limit doesn't need to be +\infty, I can easily explain why: define y_i = \ln{x_i} for all i. Then \ln{P_n} = \sum_{i = 1}^ny_i but the only restrictions on the numbers y_i is that they must be positive (since the x_i are all bigger than 1). But it is obvious that an infinite sum of positive reals doesn't need to be infinite - think of geometric series with ratio smaller than 1, for example. So, take your sequence \{y_i\} such that the limit \sum_{i = 1}^{+ \infty}y_i is finite, then \lim_{n \rightarrow + \infty}\ln{P_n} will be finite, and hence \lim_{n \rightarrow + \infty}P_n will be finite too.
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Last edited by Arne on Mon Sep 19, 2005 5:43 am; edited 1 time in total 
PostPosted: Thu Sep 15, 2005 2:54 pm  Back to top 
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perfect_radio
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#3
i thought about this while trying to solve a bloody (for me) problem (in which the product diverges).

i also tried (for that problem) taking logarithms but came up empty-handed Blush


The problem was:

Find \lim_{n \to \infty} \prod_{k=1}^{n} \frac{8k+3}{8k-3} .
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PostPosted: Mon Sep 19, 2005 12:21 am  Back to top 
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Arne
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#4
Well, in that case, the limit is + \infty indeed.

A proof? Well, if a_1,a_2,... are positive reals then, for any n, \left(1 + a_1\right)\left(1 + a_2\right)\cdots\left(1 + a_n\right) > 1 + a_1 + a_2 + \dots + a_n.

Now, take a_k = \frac{6}{8k - 3}. Then the left hand side is exactly the given product.

Now, we get a_1 + a_2 + \dots + a_n > \frac{6}{8} + \frac{6}{16} + \dots + \frac{6}{8n}.

The latter sum is \frac{3}{4}\left(1 + \frac{1}{2} + \dots + \frac{1}{n}\right) and it is well known that the harmonic series diverges.

Hence, the sum must diverge as well, and hence the limit must be + \infty.
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Last edited by Arne on Mon Sep 19, 2005 12:41 am; edited 2 times in total 
PostPosted: Mon Sep 19, 2005 12:24 am  Back to top 
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perfect_radio
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#5
Arne wrote:
Well, in that case, the limit is + \infty indeed.


I know that, but a proof would be more appreciated. I've been struggling with it for a few days Razz


[EDIT:] Thanks for the proof. It is very nice
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Last edited by perfect_radio on Mon Sep 19, 2005 1:09 am; edited 1 time in total 
PostPosted: Mon Sep 19, 2005 12:27 am  Back to top 
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perfect_radio
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#6
My teacher solved it in two ways:

1^{\circ} Very similar to yours; it start with the same trick and then used the following generalization: \frac{1}{a} + \frac{1}{a+r} + \frac{1}{a+2r} + \frac{1}{a+3r} + \ldots diverges for a,r>0. The proof is a lot like yours: take k \in \mathbb{N} s.t. kr > a. it is clear that \frac{1}{a+tr} > \frac{1}{a+tr+kr-a} = r \cdot \frac{1}{t+k}, for all t \in \mathbb{N_0}. Thus, our sum is >r \left( \frac{1}{k}+\frac{1}{k+1}+\ldots \right), which famously diverges.

2^{\circ} We have \frac{8k+3}{8k-3} > \frac{8k}{8k-4} = \frac{2k}{2k-1} \Leftrightarrow -8k-12 > -24k \Leftrightarrow 16k > 12, which is true for all k \geqslant 1. Therefore \prod_{k=1}^{n} \frac{8k+3}{8k-3} > \prod_{k=1}^{n} \frac{2k}{2k-1}.
The inequality \frac{2k}{2k-1} > \frac{2k+1}{2k} \Leftrightarrow 0 > -1 is true for all k \geqslant 1. Thus, A = \prod_{k=1}^{n} \frac{2k}{2k-1} > \prod_{k=1}^{n} \frac{2k+1}{2k} = B. Multiply this inequality by A to obtain A^2 > AB = \prod_{k=1}^{n} \frac{2k(2k+1)}{2k(2k-1)} = \prod_{k=1}^{n} \frac{2k+1}{2k-1} = 2n+1, so A > \sqrt{2n+1}. In a similar manner, A < 2 \sqrt{n}.



My solution for the divergence of A:

A more natural integral based approach works for estimating A, but it's not that accurate.

We have \ln A = \sum_{k=1}^n \left( \ln (2k) - \ln (2k-1) \right) = \sum_{k=1}^n \int_{2k-1}^{2k} \frac{1}{x} dx > \sum_{k=1}^n \f...

We also have \ln A = \sum_{k=1}^n \int_{2k-1}^{2k} \frac{1}{x} dx < \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{2k-1} < 1+\ln n - \frac12 \ln(n+1) = \ln \... Therefore 1.334568 \cdot \sqrt{n} < A < e \cdot \sqrt{n+1}. Can these estimates be sharpened? (the lower bound can as seen above, but what about the upper one)

Furthermore, can this approach be used for the problem with \frac{8k+3}{8k-3} to find some bounds? I tried that before seeing any solution to this problem and I didn't succeed.
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Last edited by perfect_radio on Tue Sep 20, 2005 12:01 am; edited 9 times in total 
PostPosted: Mon Sep 19, 2005 10:28 am  Back to top 
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Kent Merryfield
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#7
If the terms b_k are all eventually of the same sign, then
\prod_{k=1}^{\infty}(1+b_k)
converges if and only if
\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}b_k
converges.

For a proof, take the logarithm of the product.

In your case, \frac{8k+3}{8k-3}=1+\frac6{8k-3} and the series diverges by comparison to the harmonic series.

PostPosted: Mon Sep 19, 2005 10:55 am  Back to top 
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perfect_radio
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#8
I think (but can't prove) that \left( \frac{\displaystyle \prod_{k=1}^n \frac{2k}{2k-1}}{\sqrt{n}} \right) _{n \geq 1} is increasing.

This implies \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\displaystyle \prod_{k=1}^n \frac{2k}{2k-1}}{\sqrt{n}} = c, with \sqrt{2}<c<2.


Can a similar approximation be found for \prod_{k=1}^n \frac{8k+3}{8k-3}?
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Last edited by perfect_radio on Mon Sep 19, 2005 11:52 pm; edited 1 time in total 
PostPosted: Mon Sep 19, 2005 11:29 am  Back to top 
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Kent Merryfield
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#9
First approximation:

From \sum_{k=1}^n\frac{c}k\approx c\ln n, we should get, more or less,

\prod_{k=1}^n\left(1+\frac{c}k\right)\approx e^{c\ln n}=n^c

(in some loose sense of approximation).

So trying to compare \prod_{k=1}^n\frac{2k}{2k-1} to \sqrt{n} is the direction you should be looking.

PostPosted: Mon Sep 19, 2005 4:06 pm  Back to top 
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perfect_radio
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#10
Applying your approach to the other product would yield \prod_{k=1}^n \frac{8k+3}{8k-3} = O \left( n^{\frac34} \right) . Checking with a C++ program, the constant seems to be 1.61 \ldots.

I'm just wondering... Is what you wrote sufficient to prove the product grows in the same manner as n^c?
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Last edited by perfect_radio on Mon Dec 12, 2005 10:57 am; edited 1 time in total 
PostPosted: Tue Sep 20, 2005 12:11 am  Back to top 
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Matnomi
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#11
Kent Merryfield wrote:
If the terms b_k are all eventually of the same sign, then
\prod_{k=1}^{\infty}(1+b_k)
converges if and only if
\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}b_k
converges.

For a proof, take the logarithm of the product.


And inequalities 0\le \frac{b_k^2}{2}\le b_k-\frac{b_k^2}{2}\le ln(1+b_k)\le b_k for k>M , right ?
(for b_k\ge 0)

PostPosted: Tue Sep 20, 2005 12:12 am  Back to top 
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perfect_radio
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#12
Arne wrote:
We have \lim_{n \rightarrow + \infty}\left(\prod_{i = 0}^n\left(1 + \frac{1}{2^{2^i}}\right)\right) = 2. So that's a nice counterexample.


how do you prove that? it looks very nice...
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PostPosted: Wed Oct 12, 2005 11:51 am  Back to top 
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Arne
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#13
There are two ways I know of. The first one: expand the product, you get a 1 and a sum of terms of the form \frac{1}{2^{2^{a_1} + 2^{a_2} + ... + 2^{a_j}}}. Now think about binary representation of positive integers and conclude that the product is exactly 1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{2^3} + ... = 2.

Alternatively, you could use the fact that \displaystyle 1 + \frac{1}{2^{2^i}} = \frac{\displaystyle 1 - \frac{1}{2^{2^{i + 1}}}}{\displaystyle 1 - \frac{1}{2^{2^{i}}}} and then you get a telescoping product.
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PostPosted: Wed Oct 12, 2005 3:53 pm  Back to top 
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perfect_radio
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#14
both solutions are ThumbUp . thanks Arne
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PostPosted: Thu Oct 13, 2005 1:04 am  Back to top 
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