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18.10
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Altheman
Birch & Swinnerton Dyer
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#1
18.10
Gabriel Dospinescu

Let A be the set of prime numbers dividing at least
one of the numbers 2^{n^2+1}-3^n. Prove that both A and
\mathbb{N}\backslash A are infinite.
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 22, 2009 8:05 pm  Back to top 
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fedja
Birch & Swinnerton Dyer
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#2
Infiniteness of A is easy. Suppose that there are only finitely many primes in A. Note that 2,3\notin A. Let P be the product of all elements of A and let a = \varphi(P), Consider n = am. Then our number A_n = 2^{n^2 + 1} - 3^n is congruent to B_m = 2^{a^2m^2 + 1} - 1 modulo every p\in A. Since every A_n is divisible by some p\in A, so is every B_m. Thus, it remains to produce an infinite sequence of pairwise relatively prime B_m, or, equivalently, of D_m = a^2m^2 + 1. This can be done a la Euclid: put m_1 = 1, m_{j + 1} = \prod_{i < j}D_{m_i}.

PostPosted: Mon Jul 27, 2009 12:10 pm  Back to top 
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fedja
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#3
OK, got it. Let p be a prime divisor of 2^a-3 with odd a\ge 3 of the form 8k\pm 3. Then 3^n\equiv 2^{an}\mod p, so, if p|A_n, we must have 2^{n^2+1}\equiv 2^{an}\mod p but n^2+1 and an have different parities, so 2 must be a quadratic residue modulo p, which is impossible. Now it remains to find infinitely many pairwise relatively prime numbers of the form 2^a-3 with odd a. But if X_1,\dots,X_m are m such numbers, then 2^{M\phi(X_1\dots X_m)+1}-3 can be added to the list with any M\ge 1.

PostPosted: Thu Jul 30, 2009 5:27 am  Back to top 
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harazi
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#4
For the second part of the problem, one can also take any p>3 for which 2 and 3 are simultaneously non quadratic residues. It will work because n and n^2+1 have different residues mod 2. This will probably use some trivial case of Dirichlet's theorem, though....

PostPosted: Wed Nov 04, 2009 8:54 am  Back to top 
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