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irrational number
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zhaobin
Navier-Stokes Equations
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#1
irrational number
maybe famous

let a_1,a_2,\cdots,a_n be n positive rational numbers and let k_1,k_2,\cdots,k_n be n positive integers such that a_i^\frac{1}{k_i} is irrational.prove that \sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i^\frac{1}{k_i} is irrational.

PostPosted: Thu Feb 17, 2005 6:59 pm  Back to top 
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3X.lich
Riemann Hypothesis
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#2
zhaobin: maybe you want to impose restrictions to a_i. What happens if a_i=b_i^{k_i} for some positive rational number b_i, for every i=1\ldots n?
Certainly, \sum_{i=1}^n a_i^{\frac{1}{k_i}}=\sum_{i=1}^n b_i, which is a rational number, contradiction.
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PostPosted: Thu Feb 17, 2005 7:07 pm  Back to top 
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zhaobin
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#3
but I'm afraid you didn't read the problem carefully.I have already imposed restrictions.isn't it? Smile

PostPosted: Thu Feb 17, 2005 7:22 pm  Back to top 
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vess
Yang-Mills Theory
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#4
Yes, it is famous. Wink It has at least appeared in the Problems column of the Elemente der Matematik. I think it was solved by Pierre on this forum (at least in the case of square roots, but the proof can be easily generalized). However, I can't find his post right now, so I'll type the simple solution below.

But, first of all, why do you introduce the different exponents 1/k_1,\ldots,1/k_n? By putting them into a common denominator k and raising each a_i to the power k/k_i, we may clearly assume that k_1 = \cdots = k_n=k (which we do, of course Smile ).

Consider the polynomial
P(t):= \prod \big( t - a_1^{1/k} - \omega_2 a_2^{1/k} - \cdots - \omega_n a_n^{1/k} \big) \in \mathbb{Q} [ a_1^{1/k},\ldots, ...
where the product is over all k^{n-1} choices of (n-1)-tuples (\omega_2,\ldots, \omega_n) of kth roots of unity, and \zeta is a fixed primitive kth root of unity. Because, for every i \in \{2,\ldots,n\} and kth root of unity \omega, changing a_i^{1/k} to \omega a_i^{1/k} does not affect this polynomial, P(t) has the form
(*)  \quad
P(t) = P_0(t) + a_1^{1/k}P_1(t) + a_1^{2/k}P_2(t) + \cdots + a_1^{(k-1)/k}P_{k-1}(t) \in \mathbb{Q}[a_1^{1/k}][t],
where P_0,\ldots, P_{k-1} \in \mathbb{Q}[ t].

Now, let S=a_1^{1/k}+ \cdots + a_n^{1/k}, and suppose to the contrary that S is rational. By (*) and the fact that a_1^{j/k} is irrational for 1 \leq j < k, and the fact that P(S) = 0, it must be that P_0(S) = \cdots = P_{k-1}(S) = 0. In particular, it is also true that
P_0(S) + \zeta a_1^{1/k} P_1(S) + \cdots + \zeta^{k-1} a_1^{(k-1)/k} P_{k-1}(S) = 0,
i.e.
\prod \big( S - \zeta a_1^{1/k} - \omega_2 a_2^{1/k}  - \cdots - \omega_n a_n^{1/k}  \big) = 0,
where, once again, the product is over all k^{n-1} choices for the kth roots of unity \omega_2,\ldots,\omega_n. Therefore, there are choices of the \omega_i for which
x_1(1 - \zeta) + x_2(1 - \omega_2) + \cdots + x_n (1 - \omega_n) = 0
(here, x_i = a_i^{1/k} \in \mathbb{R}^+), which is clearly a contradiction because each summand has non-negative real part, and the first summand has strictly positive real part (as \zeta is a primitive kth root of unity and k > 1). Hence, S is irrational, proving the claim. Q.E.D.

Remark. The argument clearly works to show the more general assertion that the set
\big\{ q^{1/k} \mid q \in \mathbb{Q}, k \in \mathbb{N}, q^{1/k} \notin \mathbb{Q} \big\}
is linearly independent over \mathbb{Q}.

Hope this helps,
--Vesselin
Last edited by vess on Tue May 17, 2005 12:09 pm; edited 1 time in total 
PostPosted: Fri Feb 18, 2005 3:38 am  Back to top 
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vess
Yang-Mills Theory
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#5
There is actually a very minor error in this proof which can be immediately fixed but which I am too lazy to correct right now Smile . Can you find it? (and fix it Wink )

PostPosted: Fri Feb 18, 2005 4:49 am  Back to top 
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zhaobin
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#6
vess,thank you very much.
I'll try to understand your solution. Smile

PostPosted: Mon Feb 21, 2005 5:42 pm  Back to top 
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ondrob
Riemann Hypothesis
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#7
Is it only me who thinks that there's something wrong in Vess's solution ?
Today I was trying to solve this for few hours and was very happy, when found your solution, but:

P_0(S) + \zeta a_1^{1/k} P_1(S) + \cdots + \zeta^{k-1} a_1^{(k-1)/k} P_{k-1}(S) = 0

I think it's not true. It would mean that S is root of P(x) but it's true only when \zeta=1, isn't it?

Sorry if I'm misunderstooding something.
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PostPosted: Tue May 17, 2005 7:40 am  Back to top 
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vess
Yang-Mills Theory
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#8
As I mentioned in post #4, there is a minor mistake in the proof which is immediately fixed -- but it's not in the line you quote. The proof I wrote is correct in the case when a_1 is not a dth power for any d \mid k, d>1 (so that the numbers a_1^{1/k}, a_1^{2/k}, \ldots, a_1^{(k-1)/k} are \mathbb{Q}-linearly independent). In that case, however, the line By (*) and the fact that a_i^{1/j} is irrational for 1 \leq j < k should be read By (*) and the fact that the numbers a_i^{1/j}, 1 \leq j < k are linearly rationally independent. In view of the \mathbb{Q}-linear independence, it follows from P_0(S) + a_1^{1/k}P_1(S)  + \cdots + a_1^{(k-1)/k}P_{k-1}(S) = P(S) = 0 and P_0(S), \ldots, P_{k-1}(S) \in \mathbb{Q} that P_0(S) = \cdots = P_{k-1}(S) = 0 (S is a root of each of these polynomials), so it must as well be true that P_0(S) + \zeta a_1^{1/k} P_1(S) + \cdots + \zeta^{k-1} a_1^{(k-1)/k} P_{k-1}(S) = 0 (each of the summands is 0). From here, the contradiction is easily obtained: the last equality is equivalent to
\prod \big( S - \zeta a_1^{1/k} - \omega_2 a_2^{1/k} - \cdots - \omega_n a_n^{1/k} \big) = 0,
but, as we saw, each multiplier has strictly positive real part and is thus non-zero.

But this, when a_1^{1/k}, \ldots, a_1^{(k-1)/k} are linearly independent. And what if this is not the case? Let d>1 be the greatest divisor of k for which a_1 is a dth power, and let k=dl (by assumption, l > 1, or else a_1 would be a kth power). Then, the numbers a_1^{1/l}, \ldots, a_1^{(l-1)/l} are linearly independent over the rationals, and it follows from P(S) = 0 that
a_1^{(j/l)}P_j(S) + a_1^{(j+l)/l}P_{j+l}(S) + \cdots + a_1^{(j+(d-1)l)/l}P_{j+(d-1)l}(S) = 0 \quad \forall \, j \in \mathbb{Z...
Multiplying this equality by \zeta^{dj} and summing over j=0,1,\ldots,l-1, we get that
\prod \big( S - \zeta^d a_1^{1/k} - \omega_2 a_2^{1/k} - \cdots - \omega_n a_n^{1/k} \big) = 0,
which is likewise a contradiction: every multiplier has strictly positive real part and is therefore non-zero.

Hope this helps Smile, and sorry for the confusion Blush ...

--Vesselin
Last edited by vess on Tue May 17, 2005 10:41 pm; edited 1 time in total 
PostPosted: Tue May 17, 2005 12:32 pm  Back to top 
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vess
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#9
In fact, it is not difficult to generalize the proof a little to show the stronger result:

Theorem. Let b_1, \ldots, b_n \in \mathbb{Q}\setminus \{0\}; a_1,\ldots, a_n \in \mathbb{N}, and k_1,\ldots,k_n > 1 are integers such that the a_i are multiplicatively independent and no a_i is a perfect dth power for any divisor d \mid k_i, d>1, then the degree of the algebraic number
b_1a_1^{1/k_1} + \cdots + b_na_n^{1/k_n}
is precisely k_1k_2 \cdots k_n.

Here is an illustration -- a special case that you may consider a nice olympiad problem:

Problem. Let p_1,\ldots,p_n be distinct primes. Prove that the polynomial
\prod \big( x \pm \sqrt{p_1} \pm \cdots \pm \sqrt{p_n} \big) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]
is irreducible over \mathbb{Z}[x]. Here, the product is over all 2^n choices of the \pm signs.

--Vesselin

PostPosted: Tue May 17, 2005 12:52 pm  Back to top 
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ondrob
Riemann Hypothesis
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#10
Thanx very much, now I understand it quite clearly Smile

I was trying something else when trying to prove it, but I was not able to finish it...
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PostPosted: Tue May 17, 2005 1:06 pm  Back to top 
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vess
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#11
What was your idea?

PostPosted: Tue May 17, 2005 10:42 pm  Back to top 
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ondrob
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#12
My idea was almost the same as you, but I didn't do that trick with \zeta...
I constructed polynomial (In same way that you did) for which:
P(a_1^{1/k}+a_2^{1/k}\cdots+a_{n-1}^{1/k})=0
And from it flows that
P(S-a_n^{1/k})=0
But from this point I was unable to move. This can be finished in the same way as you did.
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PostPosted: Wed May 18, 2005 2:43 am  Back to top 
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ondrob
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#13
Heh, now I noticed your last post Vess.
I thought that the theorem you wrote is true, but I'm unbale to prove such things, because these things from higher math are spanish village for me... I could prove some easy theorems about algebraic numbers using elementary knowledge, but I think that proviing your Theorem needs some bigger "guns" to kill it Wink
Problem you gived seems nice, I'll try to make it.
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PostPosted: Wed May 18, 2005 2:56 am  Back to top 
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epitomy01
Poincare Conjecture
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#14
vess could you by any chance post a solution to the last problem, the 'nice olympiad problem'? i'm having difficulty solving it.

PostPosted: Fri May 12, 2006 5:44 am  Back to top 
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sisioyus
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#15
Very strong problem, I've searched it for so long time.
I like it.
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PostPosted: Sat Aug 18, 2007 11:29 pm  Back to top 
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zhaobin
Navier-Stokes Equations
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#16
vess wrote:
As I mentioned in post #4, there is a minor mistake in the proof which is immediately fixed -- but it's not in the line you quote. The proof I wrote is correct in the case when a_1 is not a dth power for any d \mid k, d > 1 (so that the numbers a_1^{1/k}, a_1^{2/k}, \ldots, a_1^{(k - 1)/k} are \mathbb{Q}-linearly independent)
--Vesselin

I am sorry,vess,I know it is tooooooo late,When I post the problem I haven't some some basic knowledge.
Now I have learn some algebra.And thank you for your solution very much,
But as I know a_1^{1/k}, a_1^{2/k}, \ldots, a_1^{(k - 1)/k} is linearly independent over \mathbb{Q} if and only if x^k - a_1 is irreducible over \mathbb{Q}[x],because if x^k - a_1 = p(x)q(x) where \deg p(x),deg q(x) \ge 1,Then we have p(a_1^{1/k}) = 0 or q(a_1^{1/k}) = 0,this show that a_1^{1/k}, a_1^{2/k}, \ldots, a_1^{(k - 1)/k} are linearly dependent.Also if a_1^{1/k}, a_1^{2/k}, \ldots, a_1^{(k - 1)/k} linearly dependent we can get the minimum polynomial of the linear inequality divided x^k - a_1.

So the conclusion should be
a_1^{1/k}, a_1^{2/k}, \ldots, a_1^{(k - 1)/k} is linearly independent over \mathbb{Q} if and only if x^k - a_1 is irreducible over \mathbb{Q}[x].
I think this condition is more general than your said " a_1 is not a dth power for any d \mid k, d > 1"
So I wonder if your solution still works?
Or Did I make some mistakes?

PostPosted: Thu Dec 20, 2007 2:09 pm  Back to top 
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