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1st ibmo - colombia 1985./q6
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carlosbr
Yang-Mills Theory
Yang-Mills Theory


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#1
 1st ibmo - colombia 1985./q6
Spanish Communities

Given an acute triangle ABC, let D, E and F be
points in the lines BC, AC and AB respectively. If the lines
AD, BE and CF Pass by O the center of the circumcircle
of the triangle ABC, whose radio is R, show that
\frac{1}{AD}+\frac{1}{BE}+\frac{1}{CF}=\frac{2}{R}.
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PostPosted: Thu Apr 06, 2006 2:49 am  Back to top 
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hucht
Poincare Conjecture
Poincare Conjecture


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#2
 Re: 1st ibmo - colombia 1985./q6
Spanish Communities

carlosbr wrote:
1^{st} Iberoamerican Olympiad
Villa de Leyva, COLOMBIA. [1985]


Problem 6
Given an acute triangle ABC, let D, E and F be
points in the lines BC, AC and AB respectively. If the lines
AD, BE and CF Pass by O the center of the circumcircle
of the triangle ABC, whose radio is R, show that
\frac{1}{AD} + \frac{1}{BE} + \frac{1}{CF} = \frac{2}{R}.


\LaTeX{}ed by Carlos Bravo - [carlosbr]


Lema. (Gergonne) Given \triangle ABC and a point P in its plane, let \triangle P_aP_bP_c be the cevian triangle of P respect to \triangle ABC, then \frac{PP_a}{AP_a} + \frac{PP_b}{BP_b} + \frac{PP_c}{CP_c} =1 and \frac{AP}{AP_a} + \frac{BP}{BP_b} + \frac{CP}{CP_c} =2.

Proof. By areas it follows [BPC]/[ABC]=PP_a/AP_a, [APC]/[ABC] = PP_b/BP_b, [APB]/[ABC]=PP_c/CP_c, which, when added up, we have

PP_a/AP_a+PP_b/BP_b+PP_c/CP_c=\frac{[BPC]+[APC]+[APB]}{[ABC]}=1.

if we pay attention at PP_a=AP_a-AP, PP_b=BP_b-BP, PP_c=CP_c-CP we get \frac{AP}{AP_a} + \frac{BP}{BP_b} + \frac{CP}{CP_c} =2. \square

So, using this we have:

\frac{R}{AD} + \frac{R}{BE} + \frac{R}{CF} = 2. and thus

\frac{1}{AD} + \frac{1}{BE} + \frac{1}{CF} = \frac{2}{R}. \square
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PostPosted: Fri Apr 07, 2006 10:34 am  Back to top 
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math10
Riemann Hypothesis
Riemann Hypothesis

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#3
I think this issue really simple, I resolved by methods similar to hucht.
On some mathematics journals and youth magajine have mentioned this problem.(it is only a lemma to sloved problem that)

PostPosted: Sat Jun 13, 2009 3:15 pm  Back to top 
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stsamster
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#4
By \textbf{\textit{Sine}} law to \textbf{\textit{ABD}}\Delta, \frac{\textbf{\textit{AB}}}{\textit{\textbf{Sin(B+90-C)}}}=\frac{\textbf{\textit{AD}}}{\textbf{\textit{Sin(B)}}}. So \frac{\textbf{\textit{1}}}{\textbf{\textit{AD}}}=\frac{\textbf{\textit{Cos(C-B)}}}{\textbf{\textit{2RSinBSinC}}}=\frac{\textb.... Thus
\frac{\textbf{\textit{1}}}{\textbf{\textit{AD}}} + \frac{\textbf{\textit{1}}}{\textbf{\textit{BE}}} + \frac{\textbf{\textit{1... =\frac{\textbf{\textit{1}}}{\textbf{\textit{2R}}} \cdot\textbf{\textit{[CotACotB+CotBCotC+CotCCotA+3]}}. But we can show \textbf{\textit{CotACotB+CotBCotC+CotCCotA}}=\textbf{\textit{1}}. Hence the result.

\textbf{\textit{Q.E.D.}} Smile

PostPosted: Sat Jun 13, 2009 11:55 pm  Back to top 
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