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grobber
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#1
f and g

Let f,g:[a,b]->[a,b] be continuous functions s.t. f(g(x))=g(f(x)) for all x in the domain and f is monotonous. Prove that there is a c in [a,b] s.t. f(c)=g(c)=c.

PostPosted: Wed Nov 05, 2003 8:59 am  Back to top 
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Valentin Vornicu
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#2
nice one. vietnam undergrad 2003.

first of all each of f and g have a fixed point. if f is increasing then let g(d)=d be a fixed point of g. Then f(g(d))=g(f(d)) => f(d) = g(f(d)) which means that also f(d) is a fixed point. In this way we create a sequence (f(n) (d) )n which is a bounded sequence, and also monotonous (since f is increasing), thus convergent. it's limit is the point c we are looking for.

the case when f is decreasing is even easier: consider a random fixed point of f, f(c)=c. Then g(c)=f(g(c)) then g(c) is also a fixed point, and if g(c)<c then g(c) = f(g(c)) > f(c) =c which is a contradiction! again a contradiction arises when we try g(c)>c. Thus only one option remains valid: g(c)=c=f(c) and we are done.

hope all of you know why a continuous function f:[a,b]->[a,b] has a fixed point Mr. GreenMr. GreenMr. Green
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PostPosted: Wed Nov 05, 2003 10:02 am  Back to top 
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christi
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#3
How?? Sad

PostPosted: Sat Jan 03, 2004 2:46 pm  Back to top 
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Valentin Vornicu
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#4
well consider the auxiliar function g(x)=f(x)-x. Obviously it's continous, and g(a)=f(a)-a \geq 0 and g(b)=f(b)-b \leq 0 thus it must also take the intermediate value 0 ...

maybe your "how" was directed to another thing?
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PostPosted: Sat Jan 03, 2004 2:51 pm  Back to top 
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amfulger
Yang-Mills Theory
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#5
Valentin Vornicu wrote:

the case when f is decreasing is even easier: consider a random fixed point of f, f(c)=c. .....and if g(c)<c then g(c) = f(g(c)) > f(c) =c which is a contradiction! again a contradiction arises when we try g(c)>c. Thus only one option remains valid: g(c)=c=f(c) and we are done.


I think the > in your proof should be replaced by \geq. I don't see why should f be injective. This doesn't change anything. The proof is still valid, but a nicer contradiction is obtained.

PostPosted: Sun Jan 04, 2004 7:41 pm  Back to top 
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Valentin Vornicu
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#6
f is decreasing ( that is f(x)<f(y) when x>y) and g(c) I supposed it is smaller than c which means that f(g(c))>f(c). nu equality involved.
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PostPosted: Sun Jan 04, 2004 10:47 pm  Back to top 
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amfulger
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#7
So what you mean is that you only consider the situations f is increasing (x>y => f(x)>f(y))and f is decreasing (x>y =>f(x)<f(y)).
Then I suppose that you consider that the monotonous functions are injective. In Romania we use strictly monotonous for this. So what does the monotonous in the problem text stand for?

PostPosted: Mon Jan 05, 2004 8:00 am  Back to top 
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Valentin Vornicu
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#8
in Romanian you use the word "monoton". In English monotonous means either increasing or decreasing, that is (f(x)-f(y))(x-y) > 0 or (f(x)-f(y))(x-y) <0 for any x,y. I belive that you have an English problem here Mr. Green
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PostPosted: Mon Jan 05, 2004 8:12 am  Back to top 
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grobber
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#9
I don't think monotonous means strict inequalities. I also think that we should use "strictly monotonous" if we're referring to monotonous and injective functions.

PostPosted: Tue Jan 06, 2004 5:00 am  Back to top 
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Valiowk
Riemann Hypothesis
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#10
Well, if you see this link and that link, you'll understand where the confusion comes from.

Personally, I can't even remember what I learnt monotone to be during training sessions... (this is what query forms are for...)

PostPosted: Tue Jan 06, 2004 5:07 am  Back to top 
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liyi
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#11
In high school books, 'increasing' and 'decreasing' mean strict inequalities.
But in the most math analysis books, it allows equality. So we should use 'strictly increasing(decreasing)'

PostPosted: Tue Jan 06, 2004 5:18 am  Back to top 
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