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Post Posted: May 24, 2007, 5:25 pm • # 1 


Find all functions f:\mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} such that for all m,n\in \mathbb{N}:
  • f(2)=2,
  • f(mn)=f(m)f(n),
  • f(n+1)>f(n).
 
 
Post Posted: May 24, 2007, 5:25 pm • # 2 


There is only one such function: f(n)=n.
Of course f(k \cdot 1)=f(k) \cdot f(1) so f(1)=1.
Now we prove by induction that f(2^{k})=2^{k}. Indeed f(2)=2 and f(2^{k+1})=f(2^{k}) \cdot f(2)= 2^{k+1}
Now as the function is increasing, and we have 2^{k+1}-2^{k}=f(2^{k+1})-f(2^{k}) we get f(n)=n for every n \in N
 
 
Post Posted: Oct 25, 2007, 10:55 pm • # 3 


Other solution.
We prove by induction that f(n)=n
n=1,2 then it is true.
Suppose f(k)=k,\forall k=1,..,k
We prove that f(k+1)=k+1
Case 1 k+1 is a prime then k+2 is a composite .
Suppose k+2=ab where a,b>1
So f(k+2)=f(a)f(b)=ab=k+2
But f(k)<f(k+1)<f(k+2) so f(k+1)=k+1
Case 2 k+1=ab where a,b>1
Then easy to check f(k+1)=k+1
So f(n)=n,\forall n\in N
Problem 2 f: N\to N
f(mn)=f(m)f(n),\forall \gcd(m,n)=1
f(2)=2,f(3)=3
f(n+1)>(n)
To solve this problem we use result:
If f(n)=n,f(m)=m where m>n then f(k)=k,\forall k\in[n,m]
So induction as above solution we get result :f(n)=n,\forall n\in N
 
 
Post Posted: Jul 07, 2008, 2:12 pm • # 4 


jastrzab wrote:
There is only one such function: f(n) = n.
Of course
f(k \cdot 1) = f(k) \cdot f(1)
so f(1) = 1.
Now we prove by induction that f(2^{k}) = 2^{k}. Indeed f(2) = 2 and
f(2^{k + 1}) = f(2^{k}) \cdot f(2) = 2^{k + 1}
Now as the function is increasing, and we have
2^{k + 1} - 2^{k} = f(2^{k + 1}) - f(2^{k})
we get f(n) = n for every n \in N


I don't understand - how is the conclusion that f(n) = n reached. Could someone clarify it to me please?
 
 
Post Posted: Jul 07, 2008, 2:21 pm • # 5 


The values f(2^k + a), a = 1, 2, ... 2^k - 1 are strictly increasing and between 2^k and 2^{k+1}, so they must take on each value between exactly once and in increasing order.

_________________
Annoying Precision (http://qchu.wordpress.com/)
 
 
Post Posted: Oct 13, 2008, 4:42 am • # 6 


Peter wrote:
Find all functions f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} such that for all m,n\in \mathbb{N}:
  • f(2) = 2,
  • f(mn) = f(m)f(n),
  • f(n + 1) > f(n).

Ok,how about
Find all functions f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} such that for all m,n\in \mathbb{N}:
  • f(mn) = f(m)f(n),
  • f(n + 1) > f(n).


Result
Let try :lol:
 
 
Post Posted: Oct 13, 2008, 5:18 am • # 7 


A proof by inductionAllnames' problem can be solved analogously by the hypothesis that f(n)=n^a..
 
 
Post Posted: Oct 13, 2008, 6:54 am • # 8 


Allnames wrote:
Find all functions f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} such that for all m,n\in \mathbb{N}:
  • f(mn) = f(m)f(n),
  • f(n + 1) > f(n).

Result
Let try :lol:


In fact, it suffices to have f(mn)=f(m)f(n) for coprime m,n only. It was some China TST, I think.

_________________
IMO Shortlist 2010 revealed!
 
 
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