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Sum of measurable sets
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Kent Merryfield
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#1
Sum of measurable sets

If A and B are subsets of \mathbb{R}, define A+B by A+B=\{a+b:a\in A, b\in B\}. Suppose that A and B are measurable sets of positive finite measure. Prove that A+B contains an open interval.

PostPosted: Tue Nov 09, 2004 1:17 am  Back to top 
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Myth
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#2
Hi Kent!
Finally, I am at home!

Very nice problem.

Suppose contrary, i.e. \frac{A+B}{2} doesn't contain intervals. Assume WLOG A,B\subset [0,1], then \frac{A+B}{2}\subset [0,1].
Let n>1 be natural number. Consider subintervals \left(0,\frac{1}{n}\right), ..., \left(\frac{n-1}{n},1\right). Each of these intervals contains point c s.t. c\not\in \frac{A+B}{2}. It follows that (2c-A)\cap B=\varnothing.
So we have set C\subset [0,1] s.t. \overline{C}=[0,1] and \forall\,c\in C:\ (2c-A)\cap B=\varnothing.
Since B is a mesurable set, we can find open set \hat{B} s.t. B\subset \hat{B} and |\hat{B}\setminus B|\leq \epsilon, where \epsilon will be defined later. Any open set in \mathbb{R} is a union of at most countable many pairwise disjoint intervals. So \hat{B}=B_1\cup B_2\cup ..., where B_k is an interval, B_k\subset [0,1].
For each interval B_k we can find c_k\in C s.t. |(2c_k-A)\cap B_k|\geq \frac{1}{3}|B_k|\cdot |A| (!).
Thus we have
1) \bigcup_{k=1}^\infty (2c_k-A)\cap B=\varnothing;
2) \left|\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty (2c_k-A)\cap \hat{B}\right|\geq \frac{1}{3}|\hat{B}|\cdot|A|;
3) |\hat{B}\setminus B|\leq \epsilon.
It follows that
B''=\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty (2c_k-A)\cap \hat{B} \subset \hat{B}\setminus B=B',
so |B''|\leq |B'|. It yields
\frac{1}{3}|\hat{B}|\cdot|A|\leq \epsilon.
Take \epsilon =\frac{1}{4}|B|\cdot|A| to obtain contradiction.

I think I also have another solution using characteristic functions and integrals.
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PostPosted: Tue Nov 16, 2004 6:15 am  Back to top 
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Kent Merryfield
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#3
Myth wrote:
I think I also have another solution using characteristic functions and integrals.

That would probably be the solution I had in mind. It will take me until tomorrow to process your first solution.

PostPosted: Tue Nov 16, 2004 11:31 am  Back to top 
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Myth
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#4
I am glad you will read it! Smile

P.S. I hope you checked my solution for topic "Convex function" http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?p=129665 Wink
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PostPosted: Tue Nov 16, 2004 11:44 am  Back to top 
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Kent Merryfield
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#5
Myth wrote:
For each interval B_k we can find c_k\in C s.t. |(2c_k-A)\cap B_k|\geq \frac{1}{3}|B_k|\cdot |A| (!).

Although I think I see this, I'm not quite sure where the 1/3 is coming from. Could you expande the explanation of this a little, please?

I'll go ahead and post my proof. Convolution on \mathbb{R} is defined by

f*g(x)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x-y)g(y)dy
It can be shown that if f\in L^1 and g\in L^{\infty}, then f*g is continuous (in fact, uniformly continuous and tending to 0 at \infty, not that we'll use those parts.)

Consider h(x)=\chi_A*\chi_B(x). From above, this is a continuous function. If h(x)\ne 0 then there must be some y (in fact, a set of y of positive measure) such that x-y\in A and y\in B. In other words, x\in A+B. However, h is a nonnegative continous function whose integral is |A|\cdot|B|, a positive number. A nonnegative continous function with positive integral must be positive on some interval.

PostPosted: Thu Nov 18, 2004 11:31 am  Back to top 
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Myth
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#6
Kent Merryfield wrote:
Myth wrote:
For each interval B_k we can find c_k\in C s.t. |(2c_k-A)\cap B_k|\geq \frac{1}{3}|B_k|\cdot |A| (!).

Although I think I see this, I'm not quite sure where the 1/3 is coming from. Could you expande the explanation of this a little, please?

Actually, it is easy to show that we can find c\in[0,1] s.t. |(2c-A)\cap B_k|\geq \frac{1}{2}|B_k|\cdot |A| and \frac{1}{3} is just "correction", because we search for c\in C, where C is a dense set.

Your solution requires some nontrivial (?) convolution's features. I tried to find solution which appeal only to theory of measure itself.
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PostPosted: Thu Nov 18, 2004 12:01 pm  Back to top 
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Kent Merryfield
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#7
Quote:
Your solution requires some nontrivial (?) convolution's features.

A walk through the features that it does require:

1. There are "nice" dense subspaces of L^1(\mathbb{R}). One particular manifestation of this: the step functions are dense in L^1. A path to this: you can approximate an L^1 function by a simple function, and then you can approximate each characteristic function that goes into the linear combination by a characteristic function of a finite union of intervals. This is a version of "measurable sets are nearly finite unions of intervals", which is an idea that Myth used rather more directly in his proof.

2. For f\in L^1, define f_t(x)=f(x-t). Then \lim_{t\to0}||f_t-f||_1=0. This is true by calculation for step functions, and we use the density from #1.

3. |f*g(x-t)-f*g(x)|\le \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|f_t(x-y)-f(x-y)||g(y)|dy \le ||f_t-f||_1||g||_{\infty}. Hence the result about f*g being uniformly continuous.

That's what was used.

PostPosted: Thu Nov 18, 2004 2:34 pm  Back to top 
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Mindspa
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#8
A nice immediate corollary is that sets of positive measure contain hamel basis', the A - A contains a neighborhood of the origin analogue gives a proof of that any cantor set contain a hamel basis.
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PostPosted: Sun Nov 21, 2004 7:25 am  Back to top 
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julien_santini
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#9
How do we jump from "any set with positive measure contains a Hamel basis" to "the Cantor set contains a Hamel basis" (since the Cantor set has measure 0) ?

PostPosted: Tue Sep 26, 2006 5:09 pm  Back to top 
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grobber
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#10
As has been discussed many times before on the forum (I remember seeing the problem at least three times; use the search function), if C is the Cantor set, then C+C=[0,2] (despite the fact that C has measure zero; measure has nothing to do with this Smile). This means that every real can be written as a rational multiple of a number in C+C, which, in turn, means that C contains a system of generators of \mathbb R over \mathbb Q. From any system of generators one can extract a basis, so that's that.

PostPosted: Tue Sep 26, 2006 9:41 pm  Back to top 
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julien_santini
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#11
grobber wrote:
if C is the Cantor set, then C+C=[0,2]


Oh, oh ... this sheds much light !

PostPosted: Tue Sep 26, 2006 10:13 pm  Back to top 
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HilbertThm90
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#12
I was searching for posts on convolutions, and ran across this. I was excited to see that out of the two solutions given, the way I did this last week was not one of them.

There are a_0 and b_0 in A and B respectively with metric density 1. (Metric density at x is \lim_{r\to 0}\frac{m(E\cap B(x,r))}{m(B(x,r))}). Since metric density is 1 at almost every point of a set, a sets of positive measure are guaranteed to have the points a_0 and b_0 as listed.

Choose \delta>0 to be small. Then let c=a_0+b_0. For each \epsilon, define B_\epsilon=\{c+\epsilon-b: b\in B, \ |b-b_0|<\delta\}.

So we now have B_\epsilon\subset(a_0+\epsilon-\delta, a_0+\epsilon+\delta). So proper choosing of \delta and \epsilon small enough we have A\cap B_\epsilon\neq\emptyset (by the metric density of 1), i.e. A+B\supset (c-\epsilon_0, c+\epsilon_0) for some \epsilon_0>0.
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PostPosted: Thu Jul 31, 2008 5:05 pm  Back to top 
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