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finite set of integers can be arranged without intersection
Moderators: High School Olympiad Moderators, darij grinberg, freemind, Megus, N.T.TUAN, orl, pbornsztein
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orl
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#1
finite set of integers can be arranged without intersection
folklore

Prove that each finite set of integers can be arranged without intersection.
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PostPosted: Tue Dec 28, 2004 4:49 pm  Back to top 
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grobber
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#2
orl, maybe you could restate some of the problems you've recently posted? For instance, I have no idea what this one means Confused. First of all, what does "arranging a finite set of integers" mean? Second of all, what does "intersection" mean in this case?

Sorry if this is common language, it's not common to me.. Smile

Thanks!

PostPosted: Tue Dec 28, 2004 5:32 pm  Back to top 
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orl
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#3
grobber wrote:


Sorry if this is common language, it's not common to me.. Smile

Thanks!


Maybe I should define it first what I want to know. Very Happy

In the sequence \{a_1,a_2,a_3,a_4\} = \{1,3,6,5\} and a_2 = \frac{a_1 + a_4}{2} is the arithmetic mean of a_1 and a_4. A sequence \{a_1,a_2,a_3,a_4\} of integers is called free of intersections if there are no indices i,j,k with 1 \leq i < j < k \leq n and a_j = \frac{a_i + a_k}{2}, e.g. that there is no element which is the arithmetic mean of its left and right neighboring element.

Hint: Find some operations which remains a the sequence invariant.
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PostPosted: Wed Dec 29, 2004 5:43 am  Back to top 
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pbornsztein
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#4
Ah, ok. Thus, I still do not see where there must be an invariant (unless you are talking about induction) but here it goes :
Let n be a positive integer. And U_n = a_1,..., a_n be a sequence of positive integers.
We will say that U_n is good if no term a is the arithmetical mean of two other terms of the sequence one on each side from a.
Thus both U_3 = -1,1,0 and U_6 = -2,2,0,-3,1,-1 are good.

Now assume that U_n is good.
Let U_{2n} = 2a_1,2a_2, \cdots , 2a_n, 2a_1-1,2a_2-1, \cdots, 2a_n - 1 = b_1, \cdots, b_{2n}.

We will verify that U_{2n} is good too :
Let 1 \leq i<j<k \leq 2n.
If i \leq n and k>2n then b_i and b_k have opposite parities so that their sum is not equal to 2b_j.
If k \leq 2n, then b_i = 2a_i,b_j = 2a_j,b_k = 2a_k, and the induction hypothesis ensures us that b_i+b_k \neq 2b_j.
If i > 2n then b_i = 2a_{i-2n} - 1,b_j = 2a_{j-2n}-1,b_k = 2a_{k-2n}-1, and again b_i+b_k \neq 2b_j.

This proves that U_{2n} is good, as claimed.

Now, it is easy from U_3 and U_6 given above to verify that U_{3 \cdot 2^n is a permutation of E_n = \{-2^{n+1} , -2^{n+1} + 1, \cdots, 0, 1 ,2, \cdots, 2^n \}.
Then, since any finite set of integers is contained in such set E_n for sufficientely large n and since to obtain a good permutation of our given set it suffices to delete the members of E_n which do not belong to our given set (so that the sequence remains good), we are done.

Pierre.

PostPosted: Wed Dec 29, 2004 6:17 am  Back to top 
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#5
More or less the same problem was used by the Bundeswettbewerb Mathematik 2005 as the problem 4 in the 1st round:

For which positive integers n is it possible to arrange the n numbers 1, 2, 3, ..., n in a sequence such, that for any two numbers the arithmetic mean of these two numbers doesn't stand somewhere between them?

Of course, the answer is: This is possible for all positive integers n.

Another thread with a discussion of the same topic: http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?t=14758 .
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PostPosted: Tue Mar 01, 2005 3:01 pm  Back to top 
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