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Trig problem
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treegoner
Yang-Mills Theory
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#1
Trig problem
created by treegoner

Let ABC be an acute triangle. Prove that
a^4b^2+b^4a^2+c^4a^2+a^4c^2+b^4c^2+c^4b^2 -3a^2b^2c^2\geq (a^2+b^2+c^2)^2R^2
where R is it's circumcircle radius.
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PostPosted: Thu Jul 01, 2004 9:53 am  Back to top 
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ma_go
Riemann Hypothesis
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#2
what about setting a=x+y, b=y+z, c=z+x and (sadicly) expand all?
maybe muirheads (bunching?) inequality may solve Smile
(i don't really want to do it Mr. Green )

PostPosted: Thu Jul 01, 2004 10:16 am  Back to top 
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treegoner
Yang-Mills Theory
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#3
Dear ma-go, you should do it. You may face difficulty when solving it. I have a very beautiful solution to it ( because I don't like heavy computation Confused ).
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PostPosted: Thu Jul 01, 2004 10:33 am  Back to top 
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darij grinberg
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#4
ma_go wrote:
what about setting a=x+y, b=y+z, c=z+x


I have not tried it but I think it is completely hopeless, at first because of the tons of calculations involved, and then for the simple reason that the subsitution a = x+y, b = y+z, c = z+x parametrizes *all* triangles, while the inequality has to be proven for acute triangles only and doesn't hold for obtuse ones in general.

A reasonable substitution for acute triangles is

x=\frac{1}{2}\left( b^{2}+c^{2}-a^{2}\right);
y=\frac{1}{2}\left( c^{2}+a^{2}-b^{2}\right);
z=\frac{1}{2}\left( a^{2}+b^{2}-c^{2}\right).

Since the triangle ABC is acute, we have b^{2}+c^{2}>a^{2}, c^{2}+a^{2}>b^{2}, a^{2}+b^{2}>c^{2}, so that all three values x, y, z are positive. Now we have a^2=y+z, b^2=z+x, c^2=x+y. Also, we can show that

R^{2}=\frac{\left( y+z\right) \left( z+x\right) \left( x+y\right) }{4\left( zx+yz+xy\right) }.

I will try to look whether this will lead to a solution, but at least it seems to simplify the inequality.

By the way, if you look at my post in the thread "Identity", then you see that these x, y, z are what John Conway denotes by S_A, S_B, S_C.

Darij
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PostPosted: Thu Jul 01, 2004 12:19 pm  Back to top 
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darij grinberg
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#5
Using my substitution a^2=y+z, b^2=z+x, c^2=x+y, your inequality simplifies to

2\left( yz^{2}+zy^{2}+zx^{2}+xz^{2}+xy^{2}+yx^{2}+x^{3}+y^{3}+z^{3}+3xyz\right) \geq \left( x+y+z\right) ^{2}\frac{\left( y+z...,

or, equivalently,

8\left( \left( x+y+z\right) \left( x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right) +3xyz\right) \left( yz+zx+xy\right) \geq \left( x+y+z\right) ^{2}....

(Now Mr. Hyde speaking)

But this is trivial, since

8\left( \left( x+y+z\right) \left( x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right) +3xyz\right) \left( yz+zx+xy\right) -\left( x+y+z\right) ^{2}\lef...,

what is surely \geq 0.

(Dr. Jekyll again)

Any simpler proof?

Darij
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PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 2:50 am  Back to top 
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Peter Scholze
Yang-Mills Theory
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#6
thus the inequality isn't sharp at all from your proof(or did I see something wrong?).

but setting a=b=c, thus R=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}a, we get equality...I didn't check your computations, but there must be something wrong i think.

Peter

PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 3:05 am  Back to top 
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Peter Scholze
Yang-Mills Theory
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#7
btw darij, in the original inequality, we had blabla...-3a^2b^2c^2 not blabla...+3a^2b^2c^2 Mr. Green

peter

PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 3:07 am  Back to top 
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darij grinberg
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#8
Thanks, Peter, I was wrong indeed, there should be equality for a = b = c. The error was not the blabla...-3a^2b^2c^2 (in fact, the minus sign was there but it was killed by the substitution), but because I forgot a "4" before the \left( x+y+z\right)^2. So the correct inequality should be

2\left( yz^{2}+zy^{2}+zx^{2}+xz^{2}+xy^{2}+yx^{2}+x^{3}+y^{3}+z^{3}+3xyz\right) \geq \left( x+y+z\right) ^{2}\frac{\left( y+z....

So the proof must be modified:

2\left( yz^{2}+zy^{2}+zx^{2}+xz^{2}+xy^{2}+yx^{2}+x^{3}+y^{3}+z^{3}+3xyz\right) -\left( x+y+z\right) ^{2}\frac{\left( y+z\rig...,

But -y^{3}z^{2}-y^{3}x^{2}-y^{2}z^{3}-y^{2}x^{3}-z^{3}x^{2}-z^{2}x^{3}+z^{4}x+z^{4}y+x^{4}z+x^{4}y+y^{4}z+y^{4}x \geq 0 from Muirhead, hence we are done.

Thanks again, Peter.

Darij
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PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 3:16 am  Back to top 
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arthur
Hodge Conjecture
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#9
a transformation like that a=x+y, etc isn't called Ravi's transformation ?

PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 3:30 am  Back to top 
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Peter Scholze
Yang-Mills Theory
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#10
maybe, but who's interested in the name of that? it's not a theorem, thus you do not have to cite it, thus it is senseless to know the name Mr. Green
btw it makes no sense to give it a name since that transformation has been used for long times

Peter

PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 3:49 am  Back to top 
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darij grinberg
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#11
Yes, a = y+z, b = z+x and c = x+y is called the Ravi transformation, but this kind of naming is historical nonsense. BTW, the substitution I used (a^2=y+z, b^2=z+x, c^2=x+y) yields a nice parametrization of all acute triangles. But I hope you won't call it the Darij substitution!

Darij
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PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 4:33 am  Back to top 
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Peter Scholze
Yang-Mills Theory
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#12
i wouldn't have done if you didn't mention...but thus if it this year of use at the IMO i will call it the darij substitution Mr. Green (just gronau will be wondering but anyway it won't influence my result).

Peter

PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 4:36 am  Back to top 
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treegoner
Yang-Mills Theory
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#13
Thank you Darij for your beautiful substitution.
Here is my proof:
Initally, I want to introduce you my lemma:
Let ABC be an acute triangle, m,n,p >0. Then
(mcosA + ncosB + pcosC)^2 \leq \sum (n^2+p^2-m^2)sin^2C
Proof:
It is just Bulhiacopski inequality with the application of \sum \frac { cosA}{sinBsinC} = 2 and 2cosAsinBsinC = sin^2B +sin^2C - sin^2A.
LHS=(\sum (m\sqrt{cosAsinBsinC}) \sqrt \frac {cosA}{sinBsinC})^2 \leq RHS
Now by replacing m = bc, n = ca, p=ab, we have our inequality.
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PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 9:22 am  Back to top 
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darij grinberg
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#14
treegoner wrote:
Thank you Darij for your beautiful substitution.


Hmm... the substitution may be nice (although it is obviously not my invention), but my proof was pure violence compared with your one.

treegoner wrote:
Here is my proof:
Initally, I want to introduce you my lemma:
Let ABC be an acute triangle, m,n,p >0. Then
(mcosA + ncosB + pcosC)^2 \leq \sum (n^2+p^2-m^2)sin^2C
Proof:
It is just Bulhiacopski


Just for your interest: "Bunjakovski". (But better say Cauchy-Schwarz).

treegoner wrote:
inequality with the application of \sum \frac { cosA}{sinBsinC} = 2 and 2cosAsinBsinC = sin^2B +sin^2C - sin^2A.
LHS=(\sum (m\sqrt{cosAsinBsinC}) \sqrt \frac {cosA}{sinBsinC})^2 \leq RHS
Now by replacing m = bc, n = ca, p=ab, we have our inequality.


Bravo, a really Cool proof!

Darij
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PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 12:25 pm  Back to top 
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treegoner
Yang-Mills Theory
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#15
In my country, it is called Bunjacovsky.
But I wonder why that inequality is called Cauchy Schwarz ? What about Bunjacovsky? And do you know anything else about him? Thank you. Razz
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PostPosted: Fri Jul 02, 2004 3:52 pm  Back to top 
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darij grinberg
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#16
Well actually, whether it's "Bunjacovsky", or "Bunjakovsky", or "Buniakovski", or "Bunjakovski", does not really matter, but you wrote "Bulhiacopski", which sounds a bit strange Mr. Green

Actually, if I remember correctly, the inequality itself, in its elementary form, is due to Cauchy. Later, Schwarz and Bunjakovski (independently) found the integral version of the inequality, but they didn't contribute anything to the elementary variant, so the elementary inequality can be just called the "Cauchy inequality" (and I think some people actually call it so).

Darij
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PostPosted: Sat Jul 03, 2004 12:21 am  Back to top 
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manlio
Navier-Stokes Equations
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#17
Treegoner solution is elegant and neat , but also Darij solution is very interesting even if there are many computations to check ; last thing to tell is that to prove your last expression, Darij, you must not invoke Muirhead but simply AM-GM as


(x^3+y^3) \geq xy(x+y)

PostPosted: Sun Jul 04, 2004 3:09 am  Back to top 
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darij grinberg
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#18
Oh thanks, I really involved some too heavy arsenal...

Darij
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PostPosted: Sun Jul 04, 2004 6:34 am  Back to top 
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Peter Scholze
Yang-Mills Theory
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#19
the argument "you do not have to use muirhead, you can use AM-GM" is strictly speaking nonsense since muirhead is an application of AM-GM...
(BTW x^3+y^3\geq x^2y+xy^2 was an olympiad problem this year in germany(in a lower round)...darij first wanted to use muirhead to prove it but than decided to write (x+y)(x-y)^2\geq 0 Smile )

Peter

PostPosted: Sun Jul 04, 2004 6:58 am  Back to top 
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darij grinberg
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#20
Peter Scholze wrote:
since muirhead is an application of AM-GM...


Can you please elaborate on this? I. e. how do you prove it using AM-GM?

Peter Scholze wrote:
(BTW x^3+y^3\geq x^2y+xy^2 was an olympiad problem this year in germany(in a lower round)...darij first wanted to use muirhead to prove it but than decided to write (x+y)(x-y)^2\geq 0 Smile )


Now, indeed, everything works on this problem: Muirhead, Rearrangement, AM-GM, factorization, asymmetric substitution (x = y+t), etc.. But I think they had just included this problem in order to eliminate all those participants who use to solve inequalities without treating the equality case (remember in some countys, only the perfect scorers of that 3rd round could go to the 4th one... so any little error could be fatal...).

Darij
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PostPosted: Sun Jul 04, 2004 7:52 am  Back to top 
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