Talk:Collatz Problem
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From Cauchy Induction, f(1) and f(2) both have a 1 in there somewhere, and we can easily prove that if it's true for n, then it's true for 2n. Now we just need to prove that if it's true for n, it's true for n-1. --1=2 23:58, 17 September 2008 (UTC)
