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2001 IMO Problems/Problem 4

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Problem=

Let n_1, n_2, \dots , n_m be integers where m>1 is odd. Let x = (x_1, \dots , x_m) denote a permutation of the integers 1, 2, \cdots , m. Let f(x) = x_1n_1 + x_2n_2 + ... + x_mn_m. Show that for some distinct permutations a, b the difference f(a) - f(b) is a multiple of m!.

Solution

Notice that if \{0,1,2,...,m!-1\}\not=\{f(1),f(2),f(3),...,f(m!)\}\pmod{m!} then by the pigeon hole princible, there must be some a,b\in\{1,2,...,m!\} such that f(a)\equiv f(b)\pmod{m!} as desired. Thus, we must prove that \{0,1,2,...,m!-1\}\not=\{f(1),f(2),f(3),...,f(m!)\}\pmod{m!}. Suppose there was such a situation. Then, since the two sets have the same number of elements, for every t\in\{0,1,...,m!-1\}, there exists a v\in\{1,2,...,m!\} such that t\equiv f{v}\pmod{m!}. So, let t\equiv f(v_t)\pmod{m!}. Consider the sum f(v_0)+f(v_1)+\cdots+f(v_{m!-1})\pmod{m!}. Using the fact that f(v_t)\equiv t\pmod{m!}, we find the sum is congruent to 0+1+\cdots+m!-1=\frac{m!(m!-1)}{2}.

On the other hand, using the fact that f(x)=x_1n_1 + x_2n_2 + ... + x_mn_m, we can combine the terms with the same coefficient (n_i). For each n_1, since all the v_j are distinct, the coefficient in the sum would be \sum x_i over all permutations x of \{1,2,...,m\}. Thus, the coefficient would be \sum_{i=1}^m i(m-1)!=\frac{m!(m+1)}{2}. Since m is odd, \frac{m+1}{2} is an integer, so the coefficient is congruent to 0\pmod{m!}. Thus, the whole sum is congruent to 0\pmod{m!}. Therefore, \frac{m!(m!-1)}{2}\equiv0\pmod{m!}. But, since m>1, we have m! is even, and thus m!-1 is odd. Therefore, the integer \frac{m!(m!-1)}{2} has one factor of 2 less than m! does. Contradiction!

See also

2001 IMO (Problems)
Preceded by
Problem 3
1 2 3 4 5 6 Followed by
Problem 5
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