Difference between revisions of "Asymptotic equivalence"

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The functions <math>f(x) = x^2</math> and <math>g(x) = x^2 + x</math> are asymptotically equivalent, since
 
The functions <math>f(x) = x^2</math> and <math>g(x) = x^2 + x</math> are asymptotically equivalent, since
<cmath> \lim_{x\to infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \lim_{x\to\infty} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{x^2 + x} \right) = 1 . </cmath>
+
<cmath> \lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \lim_{x\to\infty} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{x+ 1} \right) = 1 . </cmath>
 
On the other hand the functions <math>f(x) = x^2</math> and <math>g(x) = x^3</math> are not asymptotically equivalent.  In general, two real polynomial functions are asymptotically equivalent if and only if they have the same degree and the same leading coeffcient.
 
On the other hand the functions <math>f(x) = x^2</math> and <math>g(x) = x^3</math> are not asymptotically equivalent.  In general, two real polynomial functions are asymptotically equivalent if and only if they have the same degree and the same leading coeffcient.
  

Revision as of 14:14, 30 March 2014

Asymptotic equivalence is a notion of functions "eventually" becoming "essentially equal".

More precisely, let $f$ and $g$ be functions of a real variable. We say that $f$ and $g$ are asymptotically equivalent if the limit $\lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$ exists and is equal to 1. online sports gambling We sometimes denote this as $f \sim g$.

Let us consider functions of a common domain that are nonzero for sufficiently large arguments. Evidently, sports online betting all such functions are asymptotically equivalent to themselves, and if $f \sim g$, then \[\lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{g(x)}{f(x)} = \frac{1}{\lim_{x\to \infty} f(x)/g(x)} = 1 ,\] so $g \sim f$. Finally, it is evident that if $f \sim g$ and $g\sim h$, then $f \sim h$. Asymptotic equivalence is thus an equivalence relation in this context.

Examples

The functions $f(x) = x^2$ and $g(x) = x^2 + x$ are asymptotically equivalent, since \[\lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \lim_{x\to\infty} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{x+ 1} \right) = 1 .\] On the other hand the functions $f(x) = x^2$ and $g(x) = x^3$ are not asymptotically equivalent. In general, two real polynomial functions are asymptotically equivalent if and only if they have the same degree and the same leading coeffcient.

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