A trick related to Thue's lemma

by randomusername, Feb 22, 2015, 2:44 PM

A simple proof that all primes $p\equiv 1\pmod 3$ are of the form $3k+1$:

Since $-3$ is a quadratic residue mod all primes $p=3k+1$ (due to the Reciprocity Rule), for all $p\equiv 1\pmod 3$, there is a $y$ such that $p|y^2+3$, so if we take $x$ such that $y\equiv 2x+1\pmod p$ (this always exists because $p$ is odd), we get $p|(2x+1)^2+3$, whence $p|x^2+x+1$.

OK. Now recall Thue's lemma. It basically says that if $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are numbers such that $\alpha\beta\ge p$, then there are $A,B$ with $0<|A|\le \alpha$ and $0<|B|\le \beta$ such that $Ax\equiv B\pmod p$. This is almost trivial to prove. Consider the two sets $\{0,1,\dots,[\alpha]\}$ and $\{0,1,\dots,[\beta]\}$. We can compose $([\alpha]+1)([\beta]+1)>\alpha\beta\ge p$ different pairs $(a,b)$ with $a$ in the first and $b$ in the second group. Hence there will be two different pairs $(a_1,b_1)$ and $(a_2,b_2)$ for which $a_1x-b_1\equiv a_2x-b_2\pmod p$. Note that $a_1=a_2$ if and only if $b_1=b_2$ because $p\not |x$, hence $a_1\neq a_2$ and $b_1\neq b_2$ if the pairs are different, and now we may take $A=a_1-a_2$ and $B=b_1-b_2$.

Suppose we have chosen $A,B$ in the way described above. Then we have $A^2+AB+B^2\equiv A^2+A\cdot Ax+(Ax)^2=A^2(x^2+x+1)\equiv 0\pmod p$. But additionally, $0<A^2+AB+B^2<\alpha^2+\alpha\beta+\beta^2$.

Now let's choose $\alpha=\beta=\sqrt p$ (I've seen cases where different choices work better, but this suffices in our case.) We find that $A^2+AB+B^2$ is a number divisible by $p$ in the interval $(0;3p)$. But then it is either equal to $p$ and we're done, or it is $2p$, in which case $A,B$ cannot be both odd, and if one is even then the other is even, so all in all, if $2|A^2+AB+B^2$, then $4|A^2+AB+B^2$, which contradicts the fact that $p$ is odd. This means only $p=A^2+AB+B^2$ is possible.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by randomusername, Feb 22, 2015, 2:52 PM

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Nice (just linked this from a m.se thread asking this very question), but I assume you didn't mean to "prove that all primes $p\equiv 1\pmod 3$ are of the form $3k+1$" :)

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